Thursday, May 23, 2019

Is Friedrich W. Nietzsche's amor fati merely a thought experiment?


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Joseph R. Larsen, taught Nietzsche's existentialism to teenagers in Korea
Amor fati means “love of fate.” Nietzsche wrote that he does not want his life to be different either backwards or forwards. Because we are only thrown into fate, which occurs out of its own volition and not ours, it can be said that we are only free in terms of being able to choose our attitudes to fate (which is similar to Stoicism). Nietzsche’s response was to accept unconditionally everything that occurs in life. He said that even if this would recur in eternity, he would indeed wish it to happen over and over again. (Read Albert Camus’ The Myth of Sisyphus, if you are more interested.)
However, aside from the above normative interpretation of Nietzsche’s amor fati, I would like to approach this issue a little differently by adding my personal thoughts concerning determinism. For the sake of discussion, I will limit my argument to the case of “hardcore determinism.”
- Questioning determinism
Nietzsche’s idea of eternal recurrence is based on the notion of determinism. However, how do we prove that our fate is determined? Contemporary scientists and philosophers argue that we have no alternatives in the scope of choices in life and that it is illusory to think that we make choices through our exercise of free will. However, I have a good reason to believe that the argument for absolute determinism is bound to fail on a priori grounds.
It is possible that determinism may be true. As a thought experiment, suppose that God exists and that He has deterministic knowledge of our universe. If He wants to demonstrate that our universe is determined and that therefore all our lives’ affairs and even the thoughts that we make in our brains were also predetermined, God can provide us with every piece of information concerning every conceivable event in our lives – that also includes our states of consciousness.
However, when God does show us particular events will occur in our lives and we come to realize that his prophecy was true, what does it say about the state of our consciousness that recognizes this truth of determinism? More specifically, could it be asked whether the very state of consciousness needed for realizing in our mind the determinacy of the universe was also predetermined or bound to occur as a combination of biochemical interactions in our brain? If this particular state of consciousness was also predetermined, which part of our mind should also recognize that that state of consciousness also abides by the rule of determinacy? In other words, if God foretold us that we would realize the truth of determinism at a particular time point in future, thereby indicating to us a future state of our consciousness with regard to our “epiphany,” how do we prove that a new state of our consciousness, i.e., meta-consciousness, for realizing the said state of our consciousness for realization of determinism was also predetermined? In order to know that our meta-consciousness was also predetermined, we would have to have meta-metaconsciousness to see that the “meta-consciousness” was predetermined. Because this chain of meta-consciousness’s is like a never-ending infinite regress, we have to stop at some point and fixate on a particular level of meta-consciousness that accepts the truth of determinism. Therefore, in order to conclude based on God’s demonstration that the universe is deterministic, there should be a particular level of meta-consciousness that is independent of the deterministic system where we belong. By inductive reasoning, we can reasonably believe that the universe is determined because God correctly predicts our future events, but we cannot prove whether our meta-consciousness was also predetermined. It is only by excluding this particular level of meta-consciousness from the deterministic universe that we as human agents can conclude that the universe is deterministic. In other words, it is impossible in principle to prove solidly to a human agent that everything is determined unless he is allowed the freedom of meta-consciousness to escape the deterministic system of the universe. In the eyes of God, it is all clear that our meta-consciousness is determined. However, to the human agent, it is unproven.
In a nutshell:
We cannot prove to ourselves that our particular level of meta-consciousness that perceives/understands the demonstration of determinacy was predetermined. Rather, we only “know.
- Thought experiment on demonstration of absolute determinism
Supposing that God gave us a book containing sufficiently clear verbal descriptions of the present moment as well as our immediate future so as to prove that even our metaconsciousness was determined, it would be natural to conclude that the speed of our perception required for understanding the verbal descriptions would drastically slow down, because it is not allowed for our metaconsciousness to “precede” our thoughts foretold through the descriptions; for to happen otherwise would contradict the law of determinism. (Just as in the case of Einstein’s theory of relativity.) In fact, our brain process that enables a critical examiner’s evaluation of God’s demonstration should “coincide” with our understanding of the verbal descriptions so that neither could precede the other. This matching relationship is precisely like that between two parallel continuous (not discrete) horizontal lines extending from the same vertical coordinate with exactly the same speed.
It is doubtful whether the above “coincidence” would even be possible, because I’m not sure how this “oneness” can be achieved between our perception of the descriptions and the metaconsciousness (remember Lacan’s quote: “There is no sexual relationship.”). Spinoza once said that the mind and the body are parallel expressions of the one underlying reality; however, within the head of a single agent, there can be no parallel between consciousness and its subsequent metaconsciousness. Rather, they are only in a serial relationship.
In relation to the parallel line analogy, to see why there won’t be such a “parallel line” relationship in our reality, let us consider the following situation:
“a particular state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of the said particular state”
The above condition incurs:
a particular state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of the particular state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of the particular state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of the particular state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of……. (ad infinitum)
This case resembles the Cretan liar paradox. Kurt Gödel’s incompleteness theorems also make use of the liar paradox or Richardian paradox. However, there is a limitation to the application of Gödel’s theorem to the above case, because the theorem is applicable to none other than mathematics. Still, it is possible to attempt analogical reasoning. One common feature between the two cases is that they use the notion of a meta-system/meta-language. However, there is a major difference. 

To my knowledge, Gödel argued that the Gödelian sentence “G=G is unprovable” is proved to be true by meta-language. However, “a particular state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of the said particular state” cannot exist either in an agent’s head or God’s view of the agent’s consciousness chain. This stipulation is simply absurd and has no truth value either in a deterministic system or in meta-view of the deterministic system. In other words, there is no “state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of the said particular state.”
In regard to the above, it has to be said that the agent would not be able to affirm the determinacy of his metaconsciousness either at a fixed time point or in eternity. Rather, the only feasible case would be where the agent lets go of its attempt to prove its determinacy and chooses to land on a particular level of metaconsciousness that he decides not to question any further. For an illustration of this case, let us look into the following case:
(1) PERCEPTION OF EVENT (at time point t1)
e.g., God foretells the future event of “metaconsciousness(1)”
(2) CONSCIOUSNESS (at t2)
(3) METACONSCIOUSNESS(1) (at t3)
(4) METACONSCIOUSNESS(2) (at t4)
e.g., realizes that “metaconsciousness(1)” really occurred.
<FLOW CHART 1>
From the viewpoint of an agent whose brain process is undergoing the above sequence of thoughts, the only way to collectively contemplate the whole sequence is to transition to the subsequent time point, t5.
In order for there to be a separate consciousness that perceives the whole series (from t1 to t4) exactly at t4, there should be a separate thinking entity. That is, it is impossible for the primary agent to collectively look upon the chain of thoughts at t4.
- Is self-reference genuinely possible?
:SELF REFERENCE IS POSSIBLE ONLY WHERE TIME CEASES TO EXIST.
Suppose God nevertheless doesn’t want to stop trying, and He wants to achieve the status of self-referentiality in the human agent’s consciousness. I can think of one provisional way that would be possible. Suppose that God makes the following scenario come true:
PERCEPTION OF EVENT (at time point t1) =>
CONSCIOUSNESS (at t2) =>
METACONSCIOUSNESS(2) (at t3)
<FLOW CHART 2>
In the above flow chart, note that “metaconsciousness(2)” is in the place where “metaconsciousness(1)” should belong. If God’s omnipotence allows the consciousness to skip “metaconsciousness(1)” and fast forward to “metaconsciousness(2),” which is therefore experienced at t3, this case may be similar to the “state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of the said particular state.” However, “metaconsciousness(2)” (hereinafter, “M2”) is dependent upon “metaconsciousness(1)” (hereinafter, “M1”) in God’s eyes. If flow chart 2 is achieved in reality, that means there is a lapse (or a disconnect) in the human agent’s consciousness. In other words, the agent “time-travels” and thereby achieves self-reference. However, it is questionable whether this genuinely achieves self-reference. Even if it were possible to place M2 in where M1 should exist, it wouldn’t change the fact that, from the meta-perspective, that M2 can exist only because of M1. Let us look into the self-referential definition of consciousness again.
[state of consciousness in which the agent understands the proof demonstrating the determinacy of the said particular state]
If M2 were put in the place where M1 (alpha) should have been and if that really achieves self-reference, it might also be suggested that the content of M2 (at t3) in flow chart 2 is identical to the content of M1 (alpha), because M1 (beta) is originally supposed to mean a state of metaconsciousness that the agent was meant to be in. In other words, M2(at t3) = M1(beta). However, M2 (either at t3 or at t4) is by definition different from M1 (alpha). This causes a contradiction. This contradiction is removed only when we treat the two “M1”s (namely, alpha and beta) differently. That is, the world where God substitutes M1 with M2 as in flow chart 2 should be a different world from the world of flow chart 1. To reiterate, the world where M1 (beta) exists is different from the world where M1 (alpha) exists. This can perhaps explain the occurrence of déjà vu.
Therefore, it is concluded that genuine self-reference is impossible, because while it is possible to create two worlds whereby self-reference is apparently possible, it is impossible to achieve self-reference exactly in one world.
Say we still want to believe that self-reference is possible in one world. How could that be achieved? If the speed of transition from the time point of M1 to that of M2 is “infinitely” high, t3 would be virtually identical to t4. In that case, the self-reference of consciousness may be achieved virtually at the same time point (just as two people talking through Time Division Duplex in telecommunications don’t realize that they are taking alternate turns). However, I argue that our consciousness is unable to achieve it in an ideal sense, based on both scientific and philosophical grounds. First, it contradicts Einstein. Second, our consciousness should perish into nothing in order to achieve an ideal state of self-referentiality. Infinitely high speed means no lapse in time. In other words, there is no flow of time, which means that there is no consciousness. In the critique of pure reason, Kant famously said that time exists because our mind is constructed to view the universe in terms of it. That is, according to Kant, time does not exist independently of our mind. Time exists because of our consciousness, and vice versa.
- Insight from Cantor’s diagonal argument
Think about Cantor’s diagonal argument. The individual natural numbers correspond to all of the the supposedly unique real numbers that there can be. However, Cantor’s diagonal real number is always following in the table’s footsteps, as if the shadow was always following a pedestrian in the sun. This diagonal real number does not belong in the table. Whenever the table includes the real number in its list, there will be yet another new real number that refuses to be included in the table, thereby falsifying the one-to-one correspondence assumption between the natural and real numbers.
Let us extend the above analogical reasoning. The Cantor table cannot “know” that the infinite number of real numbers that it matches with the corresponding natural numbers do not represent the totality of the real numbers. The very moment that we include a new real number in the table, it simultaneously creates a real number that is not included in it. However, the simultaneously generated new real number reflects information concerning every real number that there is in the table. This is achieved by the diagonal calculation. More specifically, there is a diagonal number that is based on every real number in the list, but the table does not “know” that there is one. It assumes that it successfully matched every real number with every natural number, but from an outsider’s view, that is fallacious. One Korean proverb says: A good runner does not realize that there is a good flyer above his head. Likewise, a person may believe that he has free will, but it is possible that his actions/beliefs are deterministic from an omniscient god’s viewpoint.
An alternative way of proof might be to adopt the law of induction, but it would have to be said that by doing so we accept the basis of the proof as an axiom that is independent, in our view, of the deterministic system. (To be sure, we would still have to depend on inductive reasoning even if it were possible to prove the determinacy of our consciousness while we are in that particular “consciousness.”)
In conclusion, I believe that it is provable that proof of determinism to an agent in a deterministic system requires that there be a position that has provisional independence which cannot be proved to have been predetermined to the agent.
Philosophy purports to embrace and go beyond the totality of our knowledge but inevitably fails because self-referential omniscience is never possible. That is, if philosophy can correctly explain everything, it is no longer philosophy.
(i) In “My Sister and I,” Nietzsche once said:
All my life has been a combat between freedom and necessity, between my desire to be God and the necessity of remaining a worm, although a worm with shining wings. My romanticism has been my agony – which is the agony of my age, which seeks to transcend itself, and falls into the pit of doom and despair – the dusty anguish of Obermann and Amiel buried alive in the skepticism of the century.
(ii) Compare that with the alternating truths of the following Cretan liar paradox:
“THIS SENTENCE IS FALSE.”
The above proposition begets:
“This sentence is false” is false.
Again, “ ‘This sentence is false’ is false” is false.
Accordingly,
“This sentence is false” is false is false is false is false is false is false is false is false is false is false is false.. (ad infinitum)
Let us say, S= “This sentence is false.”
Then, supposing S is true,
(1) S is false. (that is, S is not true)
(2) “S is false” is false. (that is, S is true)
(3) S is false is false is false. (that is, S is not true)
… (ad inifinitum)
(iii) Lao Tzu, the creator of Tao philosophy, said:


“To return is the movement of Tao.”
Philosophers and natural scientists alike strive to acquire knowledge of the transcendental realm/the ultimate dimension of the universe but inevitably fail because of their inherent human limitations.
1. Godel and Self-reference
Godel states that the proposition “G=G is unprovable” is undecidable in formal arithmetic. If we decide that it is false, i.e., there exists a proof string from the axioms that leads to the proposition, the formal system is inconsistent.
I admit that I do not understand Godel’s proof at all. However, I believe that Wittgenstein had a good reason to reject Godel’s theorem on his philosophical ground. The Godelian sentence is a metamathematical proposition and not a mathematical proposition. I do not see how a metamathematical paradox translates into an unsolvable proposition in the formal system. Further, even in the realm of Godel’s metamathematical language, it hardly seems that the Godelian sentence has any meaning. It is possible that “G” on the left-hand side is different from that on the right hand side, i.e., G(1)=G(2)is unprovable. From my philosophical viewpoint, if we were to treat G(1) and G(2) as the same, this would demolish the barrier between two heterogeneous objects in the language of metamathematics. I do not deny the result of Godel’s second incompleteness theorem, i.e., that the formal system cannot prove its own consistency. To prove anything about its consistency issue, we would have to get out of the formal system. However, I’m skeptical how his first incompleteness theorem leads to the second one, because the first theorem is based on the questionable paradoxical Godelian statement.
In my view, the implication of Godel’s incompleteness theorems is simple. It is either that self-reference is impossible in mathematics; or that, if it were possible, mathematics is doomed to nothing. Mathematics cannot state anything about itself either by metamathematics or without it. We can construct metamathematics as an attempt to make meaningful discoveries of mathematics but are forced to conclude that it can’t tell us very much. In other words, it is impossible to construct an omniscient view of mathematics that tells us whether it is “complete and consistent,” “complete and inconsistent,” “incomplete and consistent,” or “incomplete and inconsistent.”
*Furthermore, even if it’s impossible to bypass the Godelian sentence, it should be noted that its existence by itself does not guarantee that there are unsolvable problems of mathematics. For example, Goldbach’s conjecture may have nothing to do with the self-referential statement. In addition, even though the continuum hypothesis was proved to be “undecidable,” this notion is different from “unsolvable.” That it was proved to be undecidable means that the issue is solved.*
Adoption of the Godelian sentence doesn’t tell us very much. Some may object that the formal system and its valid metamathematical construction necessitate its existence. I understand that the Godel numbering system creates a valid one-to-one correspondence relationship between natural numbers and metamathematical/mathematical propositions. However, if each individual proposition truly had a one and only distinct Godel number, how did it come about that the Godel number of “G is unprovable” is the same as that of “G is unprovable is unprovable”? Granting that this were “arithmetically” true (because their Godel numbers are the same), how could we expect to exclude the possibility that the Godel number of a proposition “A” may be identical to the Godel number of a proposition “B,” which has a very different semantic meaning from that of the proposition “A” but can be “paraphrased” syntactically in order to have the same Godel number as that of “A”? If their Godel numbers are the same, should we always treat both propositions as those of a biconditional? If the Godel numbering system is sufficiently strong, why hasn’t it been able to prevent the identity between “G is unprovble” and “G is unprovable is unprovable”?
Aside from the above issue, let us consider the following cases.
(1) “G is unprovable” is correct.
Some think that the above notion causes us to accept the incompleteness of the formal system. The thing is, they don’t realize that the formal system has become incomplete in regard to the proposition.
(2) “G is unprovable” is false.
If this proposition is determined to be false, the formal system is inconsistent. But we have to note its inconsistency originates from the inconsistent statement itself.
(3) “G is unprovable” is undecidable.
Because it is undecidable, it is meaningless. The formal system can exist with or without it. Why don’t we simply discard this useless notion?
If anything, Godel’s first theorem proves that self-referential proposition is a meaningless notion in mathematics.
2. Godel and Diagonal Argument
To my knowledge, the diagonal argument proof of Godel’s incompleteness theorem rests on the idea that a n x n (n to infinity, perhaps) table of the truth values of the provability of one-free variable propositions - whose free variables are substituted wih the Godel numbers of the propositions, e.g., p1(x)=p1(Godel number of p2), and so on - fails to include a diagonal function, i.e., ~Provable*D(x). (D(x) may be of such a form as p1(Godel number of p1).) I simply take this diagonal argument to mean that no matter how many metamathematical one-free variable propositions we prove, there will be a new metamathematical one-free variable proposition that we have yet to include in the table and indicate its provability with regard to the godel number of every other proposition. In that sense, an analogy is established between Godel’s incompleteness theorem and the impossibility of proving ultimate determinacy.
* These are simply my philosophical reflections on Godel’s theorems, and I’ve only contemplated the possibility of them being wrong in agreement with Wittgenstein’s view.
- Hegelian perspective of Wittgenstein’s “eye”
Let me digress to an interesting viewpoint from Wittgenstein, who provided the following diagram:




<Excerpt from Tractatus Logico Philosophicus>
What Wittgenstein is saying is that the philosophical subject I contemplating the affairs of the universe should be independent of the universe.
From a Hegelian perspective, it can be said that the metaphysical “eye” in the above illustration alternates between stepping in and stepping out of the universe; that only this perpetual duality is what constitutes the interdependent relationship between the metaphysical self and the universe as an object of our observation. Or it can also be said that as soon as the metaphysical subject objectifies the universe and declares a statement on the universe, the metaphysical subject is fossilized and encapsulated by a bigger universe which is to be objectified yet again by a somewhat different metaphysical subject at a subsequent time point. A subject that ceases to be trapped in this Cretan liar paradox wouldn’t probably be an intelligent being. In order to truly “understand” this Hegelian line of reasoning, there should be a leap from this self-contradicting description to the level of knowing similarly to the case where Wittgenstein urged us to throw away the ladder after reading Tractatus Logico Philosophicus. Because this leap’s existence cannot be formalized and begs the reader to get to it on his own, I will say that this likely indicates “emergent” property of our consciousness.
What separates us human beings from artificial intelligence is that the latter does not seem to be trapped in this world of self-referential paradox. Technically, everything that AI is aware of can be expressed through codes; however, it cannot achieve a leap from the known factual codes to the state of “knowing” the self-referential paradox. AI does not ask whether the electrical states of the circuits being aware of the determinacy of the universe were also determined. AI is simply as good as dead in that it does not have the meta-consciousness of such a paradoxical nature.
Say that we have an ideally perfect web of pieces of information concerning the self-reflecting thought processes of AI, which is technically in every way conscious like we are. Say we enter in the AI machine the pieces of information that we know about AI. What should happen is the same thing that would happen between God and ourselves. We should not be able to prove to AI that we have deterministic knowledge of its metaconsciousness, although its deterministic character is provable to us. Otherwise, it would not a conscious being. In addition, even if future genius scientists manage to create artificial intelligence that thinks like us, they will only have discovered what electric configuration triggers emergence of intelligence. Humans are forever barred from the knowledge of what exactly enables emergence of intelligence. We cannot figure out precisely how our consciousness works, because in order to do so we should see ourselves from a higher realm that we cannot be in. It is my belief that our metaconsciousness is enabled by our innate inability to get to this higher realm. From a Hegelian perspective, I would say that the higher realm can be posited because of the existence of our consciousness.
- Back to Cantor’s Diagonal Argument
Let’s return to the Cantor diagonal argument. There is no diagonal number unless the table first lists real numbers in step with natural numbers. The real numbers in the table necessitate existence of a diagonal number that cannot be included in the table without breaking the one-to-one correspondence relation. A single particular real number cannot be said to be a diagonal number when there are no underlying real numbers that necessitate it. This case is akin to the case of a biconditional statement, namely, p<=>q. We can substitute “p” with the case where there are real numbers as elements of the Cantor table and “q” with the existence of the diagonal number.
The Tao philosopher Lao Tzu once said:




“tz’u liang chê, t’ung ch’u erh yi ming”
“Both emerge from the same source and yet have different names.”
Likewise, the real number elements in the table and the diagonal number come out of nothing at the same time and yet belong in different dimensions. As such, the Kantian “thing-in-itself” exists if and only if the perceiving mind exists, just as there can be no consciousness unless there is unconsciousness in Freudian sense and vice versa.
I said above that AI is not meta-conscious yet. What about God, then? If God exists, it is my bold assumption that He must also have meta-consciousness. If God could prove to Himself that his meta-consciousness is either independent of or subject to determinism, He wouldn’t be a sentient being. In that case, God would simply be Mother Nature. Therefore, assuming that God is personal, He would have absolute deterministic knowledge of the universe; however, he cannot prove whether his meta-consciousness was also determined by a larger cosmos that embraces both Him and our universe. The only sentient being that is capable of deciding on this matter would be a being that examines the larger cosmos; that is, there must be a meta-God. The point is: if even God observing our universe is in the dark concerning the determinacy of His meta-consciousness, why should we feel insecure about our own determinacy?
We can be pretty sure that God doesn’t exist. If there is no god to tell us whether the universe is deterministic or whether there is any objective purpose in life, wouldn’t we be like our hypothetical God in that we may share with Him the property of meta-consciousness that I discussed above? Our actions and beliefs might have been predetermined from the onset (i.e., the Big Bang), but it doesn’t mean that we are mindless automatons of no subjectivity or individuality. No divine being can prove to us that our very decision to amor fati was also predetermined, in the same manner that nobody can prove to us that we will die because when we are dead, we are no longer here to witness our death (please let me know who said this). If the world is truly deterministic, it is reasonable to speculate that all our decisions/states of meta-consciousness were determined – including the very way that this piece of writing is structured – just as it is very certain that we will die although no one can prove it to us unless by appeal to the law of induction. Nevertheless, the practitioner of amor fati can be convinced of his uniqueness in that not even God can trivialize his meta-consciousness from which he begins to practice his love of fate.
- What Nietzsche Actually Said
Here are some of the quotes from Nietzsche’s literary masterpiece, “Also Sprach Zarathustra.”
“Upwards: - in spite of the spirit that drew it downwards, towards the abyss, the spirit of gravity, my devil and archenemy.”
“And with tears in his eyes he shall ask you for a dance and I myself will sing a song for his dance: a dancing and mocking song on the spirit of gravity...”
Note the word “gravity.” The pull of gravity is so powerful that any attempt to escape its influence is essentially meaningless. You can only expect to hop several times off the ground and the gravity will never set you free. Nevertheless, the existentialist Nietzsche never stops dancing. He may be dragged down again and again but continues to reaffirm his will to life through the constancy of his fights. In this respect, this dancing described by Zarathustra is a tearful moral victory. The fate is so much more powerful than you are, which is the reason why any Schopenhauerian pessimists will stop resisting and sigh in helplessness. However, for Nietzsche, it was precisely his finitude in front of the fate that added greater aesthetic, poetic beauty to his bloody ongoing fight against it. Nietzsche’s superman is a superman not because he can exercise some supernatural talent or power to fend off the mighty fate. Rather, it is the continuation of his fight that makes him a superman; he carries on despite his awareness of his smallness.
Likewise, a practitioner of amor fati may be a puppet whose movements are controlled by the determined laws of the universe, but he remains a distinct existentialist of character in his spirit.
*Disclaimer: Regarding my grounds for the unprovability of determinism to a human agent of a deterministic system, I will state that they are as fragile as the grounds for hardcore determinism itself.


Joseph R. Larsen, taught Nietzsche's existentialism to teenagers in Korea
Nietzsche once said: “What does not kill me makes me stronger.”
Whatever he meant to say through this quote, I think it well reflects Nietzsche’s attitudes to life – i.e., the unbending determination to overcome obstacles and seek active self-transformation to become a superman.
Here are some of the quotes from his literary masterpiece, “Thus Spoke Zarathustra.”
“Upwards: - in spite of the spirit that drew it downwards, towards the abyss, the spirit of gravity, my devil and archenemy.”
“And with tears in his eyes he shall ask you for a dance and I myself will sing a song for his dance: a dancing and mocking song on the spirit of gravity...”
Note the word “gravity.” The pull of gravity is so powerful that any attempt to escape its influence is essentially meaningless. You can only expect to hop several times off the ground and the gravity will never set you free. Nevertheless, the existentialist Nietzsche never stops dancing. He may be dragged down again and again but continues to reaffirm his will to life through the constancy of his fights. In this respect, this dancing described by Zarathustra is a tearful moral victory. The fate is so much more powerful than you are, which is the reason why any Schopenhauerian pessimists will stop resisting and sigh in helplessness. However, for Nietzsche, it was precisely his finitude in front of the fate that added greater aesthetic, poetic beauty to his bloody ongoing fight against it. Nietzsche’s superman is a superman not because he can exercise some supernatural talent or power to fend off the mighty fate. Rather, it is the continuation of his fight that makes him a superman; he carries on despite his awareness of his smallness. (In this respect, I discover a similarity between Nietzsche and Confucius because both of these guys stubbornly pursued what could not be accomplished.)
Lao Tzu was also acutely aware of the brutality of fate. He said, in Chapter 5 of the Tao Te Ching, that “Heaven and Earth are not generous. They regard all things as offerings.” This ancient Chinese sage had no idea of evolution or natural selection but clearly understood the brutality of nature in regard to human survival on earth. How would Lao Tzu respond to the fate, then? He simply says:
“Who can (make) the muddy water (clear)? Let it be still, and it
 will gradually become clear. Who can secure the condition of rest?
 Let movement go on, and the condition of rest will gradually arise.”
Although Nietzsche might have criticized Laozi as too idle a person, the way of wu-wei (doing nothing) is more profound than it superficially seems. Lao Tzu is arguing for deliberate (if not spontaneous) indifference to problems that you cannot work out. Do not disrupt your tranquil by obsessing over things that cannot happen otherwise. I believe this way of wu-wei may be one possible answer to Nietzsche’s amor fati.
Another possible response from Lao Tzu is what I think resembles a Hegelian totality that subsumes the negative. This peculiar totality grows larger and larger by even absorbing antitheses. (A difference between Hegel and Laozi may be that while Hegelian philosophy is mostly restricted to speculative thinking, Lazoi’s philosophy relates the principle of the tao to human psychology and statesmanship.) While Nietzsche would actively and willfully fight the negative, a Laozian sage would wisely circumvent a negative event and learn to gradually coexist with it. It can be said that even as he dies, he learns to harmonize himself with this reality by achieving oneness with the universe through this eventual tragedy (his death).
Nietzsche’s personal life was mostly painful and tumultuous. Though he might have lived a life of a superman according to his definition, even his most ardent readers should be cautioned against pursuing his prescribed way of life too literally.
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Joseph R. Larsen, learned tao philosophy for two years
Can reason exist without free will?
Let us discuss this question from an “analytic” point of view (i.e., from the viewpoint of a supposed analytic philosopher or, more precisely, a wannabe amateur philosopher like myself).
The above question can be rephrased to the following proposition: “Reason can exist without free will.” This proposition likely suggests that there is at least one type of reason or person/entity having the power of reason that exists independently of free will. Assuming that there is no free will and considering that reason does exist, one can naturally decide that the truth value of this propositional statement is TRUE – i.e., the proposition is simply correct. However, since nobody has ever decisively shown that there can be no free will, we will assume for the sake of meaningful discussion that free will does exist (in this case, free will applies only to humans). Then, what does “free will” exactly mean in this context?
If someone exercises free will, it means that he does something the way he wants to. However, because determinists will claim that this very want or desire originates from some preceding causes – whether we can have knowledge of them or not – we will assume that this free will entails the notion that there is something about us humans that can make decisions independently from all the stimuli/events that happen outside or inside of us (the “outside” meaning external events happening to us, like sensory inputs; and the “inside” meaning, for example, some biochemical occurrences in our brain, etc) – despite the fact that human thoughts are only enabled by the working of the material brain. Simply put, we all have some inner core that makes a rational judgment with little influence/intervention – if there is any – from the things that are external to the core. In this case, the only cause of the inner core – which some may call a “soul” – is itself. (Again, although this is disputable, I will dismiss the viewpoint of determinism for convenience’s sake.)
The “reason” mentioned by the questioner most likely indicates the ability of human beings to think unlike animals. For example, the power of philosophy – and I don’t think animals can philosophize at all – is that it enables humans to think out of the box. Unlike a bull that always dashes towards a red cape, humans have the discernment to analyze why a particular event occurs. In addition, notwithstanding many evolutionary models that explain the behaviors of a human agent, not every human trait can be reduced into the terms of evolutionary theory; in fact, some of the evolutionary explanations may have committed an error of hindsight bias.
If we humans can act the way we want to because we have free will and at the same time have the ability to reason, this easily leads us to surmise that there may be a close relationship between the two – namely, free will and reason.
Then how can we distinguish between those that have free will and those that do not? It is my bold assumption that every human being has a free will unless s/he is in a coma. Then how can we identify the existence of free will exercised by the others? It is hard to say. I am only inclined to say that you can say that someone has free will if you feel like s/he is a real human being.
It is my belief that we can easily tell whether someone that is talking to us is a genuine human being. We have some ability to discern a real human being from any potential artificially made human being that was only designed to closely mimic the behaviors of humans. As Slavoj Zizek notes in his book, “How to Read Lacan,” some ETs that appear in a film are very close to us human beings but are different in very subtle ways. This difference does appear to exist, but we cannot quite definitively describe the difference. Simply because we cannot perfectly verbally describe something does not mean that the “something” cannot exist at all in principle. We humans, although we cannot quite lay out some concrete proof for every event that happens, often have a consensus on what can be reasonably described as a cause of a particular event despite the lack of solid evidence. Historical events, for example, can be explained reasonably well based on common sense though we are not sure if this method is comparable to the rigor of science.
Because we have not seen anybody – or animal – that can reason like us but does not have something within him that makes us feel or think that he has “free will,” as of yet, I personally do not think that “reason” and “free will” can be separated from each other (although this idea is debatable.) In addition, the reasoning power that may be showcased by artificial intelligence, however similar it may appear to be that of humans, will be in a way subtly different, I believe. It is my bold belief that the missing “gap” between machine and humans cannot be bridged through artificial means.
Our reason may be something that belongs in the “divine” – i.e., something that cannot be reduced into deterministic calculus. Therefore, I personally conclude that “human” reason cannot exist without free will. (Please visit my blog at: http://taoprep.blogspot.com)

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